No Hebrew Present Tense Barfield Leithart MetaArgument
1—There is no present
tense in Hebrew. Barfield p. 150 ‘Saving the Appearances’
2—Sometimes the absence of something emphasizes it.
Leithart, Festschrift for Jordan (‘Glory of Kings’ essay on forbidden sexual
relations
3—Thus, that there is no present tense in Hebrew emphasizes
that the Author of that language is ‘outside’/’other’—not part of The Creation,
not part of Time. It is like unto the First/Second Word(s).
Objections:
a.
‘I AM THAT I AM’ ‘I AM has sent you.
b.
Greek has 256 tenses (Pastor Toensing) and is
part of the Bible.
c.
Seven ‘I AM’s in John
Further considerations: Chinese, even with pin yin’ is a
different language, emphasizing SPO pitch snf tone.
Some LCMS preachers do so in a ‘sing-song’ tone so as to
emphasize the Word, not the sermonizer’s speech/meaning.
On the other hand, some churches have layperson do Bible
reading in the worship service, and others forbid such because it is up to the
trained called and ordained to do such reading with emphasis, which has much to
do with the meaning of the passage read.
Barfield: ‘’…a peculiar sense of the significance and shape of time is also reflected in the Hebrew
language. Not only, for example does the Hebrew verb posses no present tense, as
we understand it in the Aryan languages; the past being used for every moment
up to the present, and the future for every moment from the future on. Not only
is this the case, but the past and future are interchangeable in ways it is
difficult for us to understand, More
than one Hebrew grammarian, for instance, hasw declared that the past tense was
used for prophecy and the future for history.
SUMMARY, CONCLUSION, WHAT TO DO.
SUMMARY: The absence of something emphasizes it.
CONCLUSION: This is important
WHAT TO DO: Translation and teaching should reflect this. More linguistic work should be
done with other languages. Such as Chinese.
Notes: Someone should have told me about this! I could be
very wrong, though it might be an advantage that I am ‘ignorant’.
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